ഇന്ത്യന് ബ്യൂറോക്രസിയുടെ ഏറ്റവും ഉയര്ന്ന പദവികളിലേക്കുള്ള പരീക്ഷയായ സിവില് സര്വ്വീസ് പരീക്ഷയ്ക്കായി ഏഷ്യാനെറ്റ് ഓണ്ലൈനും അമൃത ഐഎഎസ് അക്കാദമിയും ചേര്ന്നൊരുക്കുന്ന ചോദ്യമാതൃകയുടെ നാല്പ്പത്തിനാലാം ഭാഗം.
Answer (a)
Statement 1 is correct. Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution provides that the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency (Article 359).
Answer (a)
In the ChampakamDorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the former would prevail. It declared that the Directive Principles have to conform to and run as a subsidiary to the Fundamental Rights. But it also held that the Fundamental Rights could be amended by the Parliament by enacting constitutional amendment acts. As a result, Parliament made the First Amendment Act (1951), the Fourth Amendment Act (1955), and the Seventeenth Amendment Act (1964) implement some of the Directives.
In the Golaknath case, the court reversed its earlier stance that the Fundamental Rights can be amended. It said that Fundamental Rights are not amenable to the Parliamentary restriction as stated in Article 13 and that to amend the Fundamental rights a new Constituent Assembly would be required. Also stated that Article 368 gives the procedure to amend the Constitution but does not confer on Parliament the power to amend the Constitution. This case conferred upon Fundamental Rights a ‘transcendental position’.
The court held that fundamental rights cannot be taken away by amending them. While the court said that Parliament had vast powers to amend the Constitution, it drew the line by observing that certain parts are so inherent and intrinsic to the Constitution that even Parliament cannot touch it. The Constitutional Bench ruled by a 7-6 verdict that Parliament should be restrained from altering the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
Answer (b)
HCFC-141 b is one of the most powerful ozone-depleting chemicals after Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
It is mainly used as a blowing agent in the foam manufacturing industries.
In India, the foam manufacturing sector is a mix of large, medium and small enterprises having varying capacities, with the preponderance of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
HCFC-141 b is not produced domestically and all requirements were met through imports.
It is not used in manufacturing of toys.
Answer (b)
The Pokkali variety of rice is known for its saltwater resistance and flourishes in the rice paddies of the coastal Alappuzha, Ernakulam, and Thrissur districts of Kerala. Hence the first statement is wrong.
The single-season paddy is raised in saltwater fields between June and November followed by a season of fish farming.
The uniqueness of the rice has brought it the Geographical Indication (GI) tag and is the subject of continuing research.
Several foreign research institutes, including the International Rice Research Institute in the Philippines, have been studying Pokkali’s gene pools and have identified a portion of DNA on one of its chromosomes that is crucial for salt tolerance.
Given its ability to thrive under harsh climatic conditions and produce a high yield, it can help in promoting climate-resilient agriculture.
Pokkali has medicinal properties and its higher value of antioxidants and low carbohydrate content makes it preferable to those on a low sugar diet.
Answer (a)
Statement 1 and 2 are correct.IBC applies to companies, partnerships, and individuals. The IBC process has changed the debtor-creditor relationship. It provides for a time-bound process to resolve insolvency.
It aims to protect the interests of small investors and make the process of doing business less cumbersome. IBC was intended to tackle the bad loan problems that were affecting the banking system.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Under IBC, debtor, and creditor both can start 'recovery' proceedings against each other.
Answer (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect. CRAR is also known as Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank's capital to its risk. CRAR is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.
Statement 2 is correct. Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR) is essentially the ratio of provisioning to gross non-performing assets (NPA) and indicates the extent of funds a bank has kept aside to cover loan losses. Banks usually set aside a portion of their profits as a provision against bad loans.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A high PCR ratio (ideally above 70%) means most asset quality issues have been taken care of and the bank is not vulnerable.
Answer (c)
Telemedicine involves the use of telecom and virtual technology to deliver health care outside of traditional healthcare facilities.
Statement 1 is correct. Recently, the Medical Council of India and the NITI Aayog have developed new guidelines released on March 25, 2020, for registered medical practitioners to deliver consultations to patients via telemedicine.
o The guidelines aim to empower registered doctors to reach out to patients safely using technologies for the exchange of valid information.
o The guidelines have empowered medical practitioners. They have, however, also imposed many restrictions.
o Registered medical practitioners, for instance, have to take the patient’s consent.
o If the patient denies her consent, however, the practitioner cannot insist that the patient to go in for telemedicine.
Statement 2 is correct. ‘eSanjeevani’ and ‘eSanjeevaniOPD’ is the telemedicine service platforms of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
o Telemedicine can help to bridge the gap between people, physicians and health systems, enabling everyone, especially symptomatic patients, to stay at home and communicate with physicians through virtual channels.
o It thus helps reduce the spread of the virus to mass populations and the medical staff on the frontlines.
Answer (a)
It is carved from the living rock. The columns are strong and bulky, surmounted by sculptured capitals.
A stupa with a wooden umbrella on top unharmed to this date. It is the largest Chaitya-griha among all Buddhist monuments in India.
It has huge lion pillars in front of Chaitya-griha (only two caves have this design- Karla and Kanheri)
Answer (a)
Khuts and Muqaddams refer to the landlords and village headmen.
The Khuts and muqaddams were suspected of passing their burden on to the weaker sections, and not paying the taxes.
Alauddin Khilji through his reforms ensured that they paid taxes on houses and milch cattle.
Answer (d)
Statement 1 is not correct. The leopard cat is a small wild cat native to continental South, Southeast, and East Asia. The fishing cat is the state animal of West Bengal.
Statement 2 is not correct. Combined with continuous population monitoring, studies such as this one will aid in the scientific reassessment of the leopard cat’s conservation status, which is currently categorized as least concern in the IUCN Red List.